I need help deciding between the 2 LG monitors:

Monitor Size Resolution

#1: 35WN65C-B.AUS 35" 3440 x 1440 Datasheet

#2: 32UK50T-W.AUS 32" 3840 x 2160 Datasheet

My primary intent is to get more screen real estate to display windows from multiple applications, say a Word Document, a spreadsheet, a browser etc. #1 offers more real estate but given it has lower resolution, is it correct to say #2 can display more applications simultaneously due to its higher resolution?


  • Resolution isn't the only thing to consider for how much "real estate" you get. The pixel density is important too, which is the number of pixels per inch. Small screens with high resolution results in very fine small details that might make it hard to read. The solution to that is to scale applications to be bigger. 200% scale on a 3840x2160 monitor has the same "real estate" as 100% scale on a 1920x1080 monitor.
    – Romen
    Nov 28, 2022 at 16:54
  • The 32” screen has a smaller pixel pitch (0.181 x 0.181 mm) compared to the 35” (0.238 x 0.240 mm). For a given screen area, say 1 sq inch, the 32” screen has ~19692 pixels compared to 35”: ~11295 pixels. Somehow, unable to translate this to answer my original question. Say a text document is opened on both screens with the font size/scaling adjusted so that the letters are the same “physical size”, is it correct to say the 35” screen will display more characters? Note that the question above doesn’t take into account the resolution at all! and hence the confusion. Dec 2, 2022 at 6:14

1 Answer 1


The first is an ultrawide. The dot pitch will be similar to that of a regular 27" 16:9 2k screen.

The second is a 4k screen. Much smaller dot pitch; it will class as a Retina or HiDPI screen. At 32" you might be able to use it at highest resolution, but people tend to scale them to be easier to read.
You'd have to make that call depending on your eyesight & distance from the display.

I'd go find a shop that carries those two sizes if not those exact makes & see how they feel.

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